Gillman Posted July 29, 2004 Share Posted July 29, 2004 Excellent, many thanks Why then (I wonder) do modern brewers use all barley malt mashes? I think I know the reason, and it is given in Byrn's companion volume on brewing: using unmalted grains (for brewing at least) results in a taste not acceptable to most people. Byrn states this baldly in the brewing volume. Now why would that be, I wonder too? Guinness Stout famously employs a measure of unmalted grains, and it tastes pretty fair. But maybe the roasted quality covers up what would otherwise be an off-taste, I don't know (seems unlikely though). Still, most beers, even commercial beers, use all or mostly barley malt (70% in Bud, for example, 100% in Sierra Nevada's ales, etc.) so it must be taste-related. And at bottom I think, too, for whiskey. Irish pot still whiskey employs significant amounts of raw grain (raw barley) and its taste is, well, unusual I would say. Maybe raw grains when converted in the tun produce congenerics an all-malt mash would not. Yet Irish pot still is (equally famously) distilled three times. Three times and they can't get those congeners out?? Gary Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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